Q: I am interested in an article you wrote on Disciples of Yahshua. There you mention the name Insous. Are you able to give me more information about how Jesus was originally Insous? Brian
A: Insous is the attempted English and Latin transliteration of the Greek that some claim to be a transliteration of His Hebrew Name. No one seems to be attempting to account for changes in languages. The changes in the language, being, for the most part, ignored, eventually twists His Name out of shape leading to the false name and the replacement of our Savior's true birth Name with a name that has nothing to do with our Savior's birth Name. The following Christian sources make some astonishing admissions.
Interpreter's Dictionary of the Bible: Jesus -- Inoous = Joshua -- "Iesus (Latin) which transliterates the Greek; but the original Hebrew form was Joshua or more fully, YeHoshua"
Zondervan Pictorial Encyclopedia of the Bible: "Jesus -- jezes -- Inoous, Gr. form of Hebrew Joshua"
Davis Dictionary of the Bible: "Jesus, and imitation of the Greek form of Jeshua which is a later form of Jeshoshua or Joshua".
Eerdan's Dictionary of the Bible: Grk. Iesous
Smith's Dictionary of the Bible: "Jesus is the Gr. and Latin form of the Heb. Joshua".
In finding the connections to these names you have to work backward. From JESUS we can find a KJV Bible dating 1611 and see we see this name presented as IESVS and then moving backward some more we find out that is from the Latin and going back some more we find out the Latin transliteration is from the Greek variation of Inoos to Inoous, later refined to Iesous, closer but still nowhere near a proper transliteration of His Name. Smith Dictionary actually simplifies it all by telling us the the false name, Jesus, is some kind of Greek and Latin form of the Hebrew Joshua, which other authorities refine to Yehoshua and other dialectic deviations from the original. When we understand that the "J" is, in today's English language, for the Hebrew names, should be the Hebrew "yod" or "Y".
The Greek in the first century would have been a transliteration of His Birth Name from the Jewish language of that time, that day. Our Savior was a Jew and was given a Jewish name, a Name that many in Jewish history had been named. The first King and Priest anointed to the service of the beginning of the restored Temple was name JOSHUA (YaHshua), the Old English transliteration of His Name. Also, the man that led the people of God into the promised land was named JOSHUA (YeHoshua, YaHshua). There are many names used in the Bible with a lot of Greek influence. Names like Jeremiah and Isaiah demonstrating the Greek "i" was their transliteration for the Hebrew "yod" or "Y", from the Greek, of course to the English, but when we come to the New Testament that Name is abandoned and replaced by a Name not found in the original Bible at all. The Greek names, like Jeremiah or JeremYaH, give us the proper pronunciation -- that is until it comes to the New Testament.
The sources quoted above prove the Christian leadership know and are aware of this truth, so why do they continue to excuse the use of a name that never existed in the time or our Savior but the name the name He was named did exist and still exists this very day -- Alleluiah = HaleluYaH -- yes, it is in the New Testament and has never been lost -- Rev 19:1, 3, 4, 6.
Hope I have given a proper answer -- peace, Dan